Trying to derive SE from AUH is like trying to derive 'Jacques Mallah' from
AUH. 
It's very easy: all universes exists, so some thoughts of the cleass "the SE
is -i hbar d/dt psi = H psi" exist.
Some thoughts of the class "why is  the SE -i hbar d/dt psi = H psi" also
exist - and by WAP we shouldn't wonder why we *are* (not think, but are)
such a thought. If we weren't, we wouldn't wonder it...
James
> -----Original Message-----
> From:	Jacques Mallah [SMTP:jackmallah.domain.name.hidden]
> Sent:	Sunday, 25 June, 2000 3:02 AM
> To:	everything-list.domain.name.hidden
> Subject:	Re: QM
> 
> >From: GSLevy.domain.name.hidden
> >jackmallah.domain.name.hidden writes:
> > >  jackmallah.domain.name.hidden writes:
> > >      QM is the laws of physics that best explains what we see.  I
> think 
> >that says it all.  I should point out that there is really no summation 
> >involved, especially not a sum over worlds.  There is just -i hbar d/dt
> psi 
> >= H psi.
> > >  Of course, you could write psi as a sum of orthogonal functions and
> you 
> >could choose nearly decoherent such functions.
> > >      In the computationalist view, there is a wavefunction, and it
> >implements computations.  These implementations may resemble those that 
> >would be produced by classical mechanics, modified by interference terms 
> >that may be small.
> >
> >OK, the Shoedinger equation is  -i hbar d/dt psi = H psi, Why? Why does
> the 
> >equation have an imaginary form? What is the meaning of Planck's constant
> 
> >it the CONTEXT of the MWI? Just saying, as you do, that the SE is what it
> 
> >is just because, is adopting the same POSITIVIST attitude as the
> Copenhagen 
> >school. I am looking for the INTERPRETATION of this equation in terms of 
> >the MW. Is it possible to derive this equation from a PURELY 
> >COMPUTATIONALIST APPROACH?
> 
>     If you mean to derive it from the AUH (+ computationalism), I don't 
> blame you for wanting that.  That's the holy grail.  It would be one of
> the 
> greatest intellectual achievements in all of human history.  The Nobel
> Prize 
> would be the least of it.  Don't hold your breath.
>     I wouldn't be mucking around with trying to measure wabbittiness if I 
> could derive the SE from the AUH.  As it is, the best I think is practical
> 
> is trying to predicts things like wabbittiness, and to argue that the SE 
> *could* be what a typical observer-moment in the AUH would see.  We expect
> 
> the observation to be consistent with apparent laws of physics that are 
> relatively simple, in a universe that is computationally deep.  (See the 
> discussion Wei Dai and I had soon after I joined this list.)  Getting more
> 
> specific is hard.
>     As for positivism, what you say is false.  Even if (as I did *not*
> say), 
> the SE is not derivable from the AUH, that's not a positivist statement.
> A 
> positivist would say there is really no SE in existance, but we can use
> the 
> SE to make predictions.
> 
> >You say that psi can be written in terms of orthogonal (decoherent)
> >functions. Are those functions equivalent to the individual worlds in the
> 
> >MW? If so, then we certainly have the ability to be affected by several 
> >such worlds simultaneously because of the phenomenon of superposition.
> What 
> >does this say about consciousness? Does consciousness have "thickness" 
> >across the MW? How does this fit with the ideas of Lewis and Kriepke?
> 
>     Don't misquote me.  I said it could be written in terms of nearly 
> decoherent functions.  On that 'nearly' hangs interference, the basic 
> property of QM and our main defense against the 'collapse' idea.
>     'Individual worlds' - a matter of definition.  "Many worlds" is a
> great 
> way of describing QM - until the details start to matter, in which case 
> those words can cause as much confusion as enlightenment.
>     I don't know what ideas L&K have.
> 
> > >      You still don't know what computationalism means?  It means that 
> >certain computations give rise to consciousness.  It does not explain 
> >behavior at all, and does not allow zombies
> >
> >It seems that you need to be more precise. Computationalism ASSUMES that 
> >certain computations give rise to consciousness. It does not EXPLAIN 
> >consciousness. And without a third person/ first person theory you can
> only 
> >talk about behaviors as observed from a third person point of view
> without 
> >ever describing what it is to be (yourself) conscious.
> 
>     You say assumes, I said asserts.  Whatever.  True, computationalism 
> makes no claim about *why* computations are conscious.  There are two 
> schools of thought about why: reductionism and dualism.  Both are
> compatible 
> with computationalism.
>     Reductive computationalism is the belief that consciousness is nothing
> 
> more than computation.  Obviously, if this could be proven, it would not 
> have to compete with the rival school.  That is obvious, isn't it?
>     You can certainly talk about consciousness, though.  And 
> computationalism explicitly, and by definition, does talk about it.
>     But as for describing what it's like *qualitatively*, that's
> impossible. 
>   Language cannot convey that regardless of your ideology.
>     Well, I hope you soon see the light (in more ways than one).  Get well
> 
> soon.
> 
> >From: Russell Standish <R.Standish.domain.name.hidden>
> >Basically, the i in the equation is to ensure that the Hamiltonian is
> >hermitian, which is required by the law of conservation of probability
> >(d/dt (psi* psi))=0. This latter law is simply the statement that the
> >axiom saying the probability of the certain event is 1, and shall
> >remain so for all time.
> 
>     As you know Russell, I find your "derivation" of the SE quite wanting.
> 
> As far as conservation of probability, it is not obvious that measure
> should 
> be conserved as a function of time.  In fact, measure is not strictly 
> conserved.
>     The i is there to make the equation simpler to write.  Of course one 
> could write it in terms of real quantities only, such as amplitude and 
> phase.
> 
> >As for the value of hbar, this is to fix a rather arbitrary set of
> >units we happened to choose to measure the world in. If we did
> >everything in terms of Planck units, hbar=1.
> 
>     This one you got right.  Of course, one could ask about the 
> dimensionless 'constants' of physics, and make an anthropic principle 
> argument.
> 
>                          - - - - - - -
>                Jacques Mallah (jackmallah.domain.name.hidden)
>          Physicist  /  Many Worlder  /  Devil's Advocate
> "I know what no one else knows" - 'Runaway Train', Soul Asylum
>          My URL: http://hammer.prohosting.com/~mathmind/
> 
> ________________________________________________________________________
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Received on Mon Jun 26 2000 - 02:17:02 PDT