>
> Turing Machines have no real time clock and no interrupt. If we assume the
> comp hypothesis (purely based on Turing machines) and the anthropic
> principle, then the flow of consciousness can only be constrained by the
> logical nature of the links pernitting transitions from one observer moment
> to the next. Time therefore is an illusion derived from such a logical flow.
>
> Having said that, I am puzzled by the fundamental quantization of the world
> and the constancy of Planck's constant everywhere and at all time. To achieve
> such a universal "clock" we could assume:
Who say's the world is quantized? Is there anything to be puzzled over?
>
> 1) either that at the heart of the comp hypothesis there exist a large number
> of Turing machines all requiring a real time clock responsible for this
> quantization. This implies a weakening of comp and the assumption that time
> is real. I do not favor this explanation.
>
> 2) or that all events in our universe share the same (identical) mechanism
> for transition from observer moment to the next. In other words we all
> realized (or simulated) by the same Turing machine (or otherwise equivalent
> CPU). All physical time intervals are defined according to the cycle
> time/interval of this single machine which is generating not just our
> universe, but our Multiverse (all the universes accessible through QM. )
> This cycle time corresponds to Planck constant which is absolute in the sense
> that it defines our own frame of reference. So, (relatively speaking,) from
> our point of view it appears to be absolute. From the point of view of an
> observer outside our Multiverse, its actual value could be very small or very
> large.
>
> BTW, the existence of the same types of particles (electrons, photons...)
> across the Multiverse indicate the existence of a common implementation that
> goes beyond just a common Turing machine cycle time. In other words, some of
> the basic software across the Multiverse is also identical. i.e., the basic
> driver software Version 1.0 for electrons is identical across the Multiverse.
>
> This lead to the possibility that the QM Multiverse < the Plenitude
Of course the plenitude is more than the multiverse. However, if my
Occam paper is correct, it is not much more (in measure terms).
>
> George Levy
>
>
----------------------------------------------------------------------------
Dr. Russell Standish Director
High Performance Computing Support Unit,
University of NSW Phone 9385 6967
Sydney 2052 Fax 9385 6965
Australia R.Standish.domain.name.hidden
Room 2075, Red Centre
http://parallel.hpc.unsw.edu.au/rks
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Received on Thu Jan 13 2000 - 18:03:13 PST