re: children and measure

From: Jack Mallah <jackmallah.domain.name.hidden>
Date: Tue, 10 Feb 2009 18:43:11 -0800 (PST)

--- On Mon, 2/9/09, Quentin Anciaux <allcolor.domain.name.hidden> wrote:
> Also I still don't understand how I could be 30 years old and not 4, there are a lot more OM of 4 than 30... it is the argument you use for 1000 years old, I don't see why it can hold for 30 ?

Quentin, why would the measure of 4 year olds be "a lot more" than the measure of 30 year olds? I have already explained that the effect of differentiation (eg by learning) is exactly balanced by the increased number of versions to sum over (the N/N explanation) and the effect of child mortality is small.

Is there some third factor that you think comes into play? Can you estimate quantitatively what you think the measure ratio would be?

> Also even if absolute measure had sense, do you mean that the measure of a 1000 years old OM is strictly zero (not infinitesimal, simply and strictly null)?

No, it is not zero, but it is extremely small. I have never suggested that there is no long time tail in the measure distribution that extends to infinite time. Of course there is. Any MWIer knows that. But it is negligable. You will never experience it, or depending on definitions, at least not in any significant measure. The general argument against immortality proves that. It is no more significant then any other very-small-measure set of observations, such as the ones in which you are king of the demons. You might as well forget about it.




      


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Received on Tue Feb 10 2009 - 21:43:22 PST

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