RE: Turing vs math

From: <hal.domain.name.hidden>
Date: Thu, 21 Oct 1999 09:22:24 -0700

James Higgo writes:
> Where we differ is in terminology. If there is an everything universe,
> there is not 'all other universes' - there is 'all worlds'. There is only
> one universe, and that is the everything-universe (pleenitude, whatever).
>
> What defines our wold as the subset of the everything universe that we
> see is simply the weak anthropic principle. That dictates which tiny
> fissures, with their laws, and inhabitants with a false idea of 'time',
> are habitable.

Why, then, are we in a corner of this one universe where no flying rabbits
appear? Presumably the WAP would not prevent us from living in part of
the universe where physical laws had occasional exceptions like this.
Are some corners of the one universe inherently more probable than others,
and if so, how do you measure this?

Hal Finney
Received on Thu Oct 21 1999 - 09:26:28 PDT