Norman Samish wrote:
>"Why is there something rather than nothing?"
>
>When I heard that Famous Question, I did not assume that "nothing" was
>describable - because, if it was, it would not be "nothing." I don't think
>of "nothing" as an empty bitstring - I think of it as the absence of a
>bitstring - as "no thing."
>
>Given that definition, is there a conceivable answer to The Famous Question?
>
>Norman
>
>
It's always easy to answer a hard question with a question. So here are
possible answers:
Why not?
or
One could equate everything with total absence of information = nothing.
So we get: "Why is there something rather than everything?" That
question can be answered by invoking the Anthropic Principle.
George
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Received on Mon Mar 06 2006 - 00:30:23 PST