Re: subjective reality

From: <kurtleegod.domain.name.hidden>
Date: Fri, 12 Aug 2005 10:21:47 -0400

 Hi George,

  Still trying to understand you but having trouble holding my
disbelieve...

 Godfrey Kurtz
 (New Brunswick, NJ)


 Hi Godfrey

  The "I" that I consider consists of a logical system that defines and
coincides with the physical system that the "I" inhabits. Thus the
world (the slice of the plenitude that we can observe) is anthropically
constrained by the "I."

 [GK]
  So the "I" is (1) a logical system (2) a physical system inhabited (1)
and (3) the set of anthropic constraints which delimits
  the whole of the (non-"I") universe (?) where (I am guessing) (1) and
(2) find themselves! Is this what you are saying?

  So the "I" is coextensive with what I would call my body (including my
brain) but not my mind (including my reasoning)?
 Not sure I follow you here...

 [GL]
  A first consequence is that physics is perfectly rational and
understandable since it matches the "I." (This is a response to
Einstein's question of why is the world subject to rational analysis)

  A second consequence is that your logical system is the same as mine,
- we share the same "I," - hence your world is the same as mine - we
share the same world or perspective of the plenitude. Therefore, you
and me appear to share an objective reality.

 [GK]
  Hold on there! If all physics is reducible to "a logical system" why
would there need be physics at all ? Why would you have
  to be the one answering Enstein's quandary? Wouldn't his "I", being
the same as yours be able to answer himself?
  In other words: maybe your explanation of knowledge is incapable of
explaining... ignorance?

  Also, if I remember it correctly, logical systems have the nasty
habit, once they take on the minimal complexity, to have to
  opt between remaining consistent or aiming for completion. This, of
course, would exempt your "I" from having to be
  consistent, but would also invalidate your claim that "the I physics
is perfectly rational is understandable" which, by the
 way, is a much bigger claim than what Einstein had in mind...

 [GL]
  Objective reality is an illusion that disappears when observers differ
in their frame of reference. In this particular case, it does not exist
when observers operate according to different but entirely consistent
fundamental logics. In fact, such observers would have a lot of
difficulty communicating since their worlds would be different slices
of the plenitude.

 George

 [GK]
  Is that right? "...disappears when observers differ in their frame of
reference."? But the "strangeness" of relativistic physics
  is that observers can actually compare and agree on their observations
even when they have entirely different deployments
  in their different frames of reference! The correct physics is
identifiable from these apparently orthogonal sets of data...
  Isn't your metaphor a bit upside down or "am "I" not intersecting your
slice of plenitude?

  Again, I am not trying to be entirely fascicious. You may be onto
something( at least worth shooting down which is more than
 I can say for a lot of today's physics).

 Godfrey

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Received on Fri Aug 12 2005 - 10:24:45 PDT