Does everyone agree with the following proposition:
For all number x, if x is bigger than 2 then x is bigger than
1.
(by "bigger" I mean strictly bigger: 17 is strictly bigger than 16, but
not strictly bigger than 17).
It would help me to explain some point to non logicians if you tell me
in case you believe the proposition above is false.
I can put it in another way, like:
Whatever the number someone can choose, if that number is
bigger than
2 then it will be bigger than 1.
Is it obvious?
Thanks,
Bruno
http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
Received on Sat Jul 16 2005 - 11:26:05 PDT