Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
>You might say that in the last example the states were "causally
>connected", while in the first they were not. But why should that make any
>difference, especially to a solipsist?
If one believes in "psychophysical laws" (to use Chalmers' term) relating
3rd-person patterns of causality to 1st-person qualia, then perhaps
non-causally-connected descriptions of an algorithm would not increase the
measure of the corresponding 1st-person experiences (and if you believe in a
single universe as opposed to a multiverse where every causal pattern is
instantiated somewhere, then certain possible 1st-person qualia might not be
experienced at all if the corresponding causal pattern wasn't instantiated
somewhere in spacetime).
Jesse
Received on Fri Jul 08 2005 - 12:16:29 PDT
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