Re: Are we simulated by some massive computer?

From: Stephen Paul King <stephenk1.domain.name.hidden>
Date: Wed, 12 May 2004 07:25:38 -0400

Dear George,

    How does indeterminacy and multiple-world-occupation follow from an inability to deduce that one is not in a simulation?

    Also, how is multiple-world-occupation knowable 1st person unless by the means I discusses previously? Does this not violate the anthropic principle?

I am missing something. :_(

Stephen
  ----- Original Message -----
  From: George Levy
  To: Everything List
  Sent: Wednesday, May 12, 2004 1:12 AM
  Subject: Re: Are we simulated by some massive computer?


  Hi Stephen

  Stephen Paul King wrote:

    Dear George,

        My take of Russell's post is:

        Unless the creature had some experience that was not dismissible as a hallucination (1st person) and/or was witness by others (a proxy of 3rd person?) that lead him to the conclusion that it existed within a virtual reality then it would have no ability to make such a deduction.
  True. But from its own point of view its world would then be indeterminate. The creature would occupy several worlds as long as this indeterminacy exists.

  George
Received on Wed May 12 2004 - 07:34:16 PDT