Re: Why is there something instead of nothing?

From: Norman Samish <ncsamish.domain.name.hidden>
Date: Sun, 16 Nov 2003 10:09:54 -0800

Hal Finney,
Thanks for the thought. I know that there is something instead of nothing
by using Descartes reasoning. (From
http://teachanimalobjectivity.homestead.com/files/return2.htm) "The only
thing Descartes found certain was the fact he was thinking. He further felt
that thought was not a thing-in-itself, and had to proceed from somewhere
(viz., cause and effect), therefore since he was thinking the thoughts, he
existed --by extension--also. Hence, "thought" and "extension" were the very
beginnings from which all things proceeded, "Cogito ergo sum" (I think
therefore I am)."

I don't understand how there can be both something and nothing. Perhaps I
don't understand what you mean by "nothing." By "nothing" I mean no thing,
not even empty space.

In other words, it is conceivable to me that the multiverse need not exist.
Yet it does. Why? This seems inherently unanswerable.

Norman

----- Original Message -----
From: "Hal Finney" <hal.domain.name.hidden>
To: <everything-list.domain.name.hidden>
Sent: Saturday, November 15, 2003 11:12 PM
Subject: Re: Why is there something instead of nothing?


> How do you know the premise is true, that there is something instead
> of nothing? Maybe there could be both something and nothing. Or maybe
> the existence of "nothing" is consistent with our own experiences.
>
> I don't think all these terms are well enough defined for the question
> to have meaning in its simple form. It's easy to put words together,
> but not all gramatically correct sentences are meaningful.
>
> Hal Finney
>
>
Received on Sun Nov 16 2003 - 13:11:42 PST

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