Re: HARDY and Mathematical versus Physical Reality

From: scerir <scerir.domain.name.hidden>
Date: Wed, 29 Oct 2003 14:48:25 +0100

Bruno Marchal:

> In Bohm's theory there is no collapse of the wave.

No collapse of the wave-function takes place upon measurement.
One must obtain, nevertheless, the "reduced" wave-function of the
system. Once a specific result has been obtained in a measurement,
only that term (of the global, universal superposition) counts.
This is a sort of "effective" or, better, "pragmatic" collapse.

> So it is indeed as deterministic as Everett formulation of QM.

Are they both non-local, at least in principle? I'm asking this
because, usually, I read that MWI is local, and that seems to me
very very strange, just because of the "split". I also read that
the Bohmian theory is non-local (though this original non-locality
is almost, but not entirely, suppressed by the general quantum
"equilibrium" condition).

Regards,

s.
Received on Wed Oct 29 2003 - 08:41:29 PST