Re: Provable vs Computable

From: Hal Ruhl <hjr.domain.name.hidden>
Date: Tue, 22 May 2001 21:19:24 -0700

Dear George:

I do not see how the aspect of Juergen's approach he cited at the
initiation of this part of the thread causes a dilemma re Bell's
inequality. As I understand it the history h is not THE history until the
applicable portion of h stops changing. But p and q are both non
halting. No part of h may settle in a finite time. So what? The generator
q" is not "in" h. The fact that p may recompute virtually any amount of h
depending on what happens to q(n) is not a non locality "in" h but rather a
substitution of a new h for the old h. The old h is no longer relevant.

However, p itself being global seems to me to allow the violation of Bell's
inequality in its universe. My "formal" system has the same feature as
does a UD IMO. As far as I know the violation of Bell's inequality was
already well established in our universe.

Hal

At 5/22/01, you wrote:


>jamikes wrote:
>
> > "George Levy" <GLevy.domain.name.hidden> wrote
> > Saturday, May 05, 2001 :
> >
> > (SNIP Jurgen's remark about "such a universe" whatever, my remark is not
> > topical, rather principle:)
> >
> > > Such a universe would violate Bell' inequality theorem. Quantum
> randomness
> > > cannot be simulated by hidden variables. We have to move beyond
> > > realism......to get a model of objective reality we must first develop a
> > > model of consciousness.
> > >
> > > George
> >
> > Can you restrict a universe according to its compliance with or
> violation of
> > a theory, no matter how ingenious, or vice versa? Are WE the creators who
> > has to perform according to some rules/circumstances of human logic or
> > computability?
> > John Mikes
> > >
>
>I am not restricting anything. I am only saying that Juergens has to choose
>between violating Bell's inequality theorem and all that this implies, or not
>and all that this implies. My stand is that we shouldn't.
>
>George
Received on Tue May 22 2001 - 18:24:51 PDT