More generally: this "measurability" bugs me. One has first to choose a
measure to compare with. This is a measurable item, for sure. If our
scientific agnosticism prevents us from finding such comparative measurable
item, the "thing" becomes non-measurable - in our ongoing terms, till
tomorrow, when we may find a suitable comparative (measurable) item in our
further evolution of our cognitive inventory.
I rather don't go into relative concepts. Call it 'axiom'? Is an axiom
holding in time, or do we evolve in explaining it and so it stops being an
axiom?
John M
----- Original Message -----
From: "smitra" <smitra.domain.name.hidden>
To: <everything-list.domain.name.hidden>
Cc: <jamikes.domain.name.hidden>; <marchal.domain.name.hidden.ac.be>
Sent: Sunday, January 21, 2001 8:40 AM
Subject: Axioms?
> The existence of non-measurable sets is a consequence of the Axiom of
Choice.
> It would therefore be interesting to know which Axioms are used by Bruno.
>
> John Mikes wrote:I believe, if a conceptual statement (a true one) is in
> conflict with a
> theory,
> I vote for the inadequacy of the theory.
> John
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "smitra" <smitra.domain.name.hidden>
> To: <everything-list.domain.name.hidden>
> Cc: <marchal.domain.name.hidden>
> Sent: Saturday, January 20, 2001 10:30 AM
> Subject: Re: on formally describable universes and measures
>
>
> > Bruno wrote: ''The probabilities are defined on infinite
> > (continuous) set of infinite histories.''
> >
> > Isn't this in conflict with measure theory, because one would expect
that
> some
> > sets would be non-measurable?
> >
> > Saibal
> >
>
Received on Sun Jan 21 2001 - 12:03:24 PST
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