On 31 July, 18:27, Quentin Anciaux <allco....domain.name.hidden> wrote:
> Hi,
> I don't understand what could be "mathematically existence" ? What is
> "existence" ? RITSIAR is a point of view (of an observer)... If
> something exists, it exists...
>
> You're using "mathematical existence" as if it meant "no existence"...
> why bother using existence at all then ?
Because some true mathematical statements assert the existence
of mathematical objects. Mathematical existence cannot be dismissed
entirely,
but need not be accepted on the same level as ontological existence
(=RITSIAR).
> >> I think the confusion comes from the fact that I obtain platonist (in
> >> Plato or Plotinus sense) conclusions. But the hypotheses are 100%
> >> neutral or agnostic on this point. Like in Paris and Brussels you
> >> still confuse the conclusion (admittedly startling) and the hypothesis.
>
> > How can a conlusion that the material world doesn't exist
> > be neutrral about Platonism? If Platonism is false,
> > the mathematical world doesn';t exist either. and
> > there is nowhere for the UD to exist at all.
>
> Again what existence means in this case ?
Platonism asserts that not is "the square root of two exists" true
mathematically,
but also ontoligically. ANti-Platonism asserts that "the square root
of two exists"
has meanign only within a particular "game" or set of assumptions,
like
"Sherlock Holmes lives at 221b Baker Street".
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Received on Thu Aug 06 2009 - 09:59:55 PDT