Re: Are First Person prime?

From: George Levy <glevy.domain.name.hidden>
Date: Thu, 22 Nov 2007 11:50:29 -0800

Hi Bruno,

I am reopening an old thread ( more than a year old) which I found very
intriguing. It leads to some startling conclusions.

Le 05-août-06, à 02:07, George Levy a écrit :

Bruno Marchal wrote:I think that if you want to

    make the first person primitive, given that neither you nor me can
    really define it, you will need at least to axiomatize it in some way.
    Here is my question. Do you agree that a first person is a knower, and
    in that case, are you willing to accept the traditional axioms for
    knowing. That is:

    1) If p is knowable then p is true;
    2) If p is knowable then it is knowable that p is knowable;
    3) if it is knowable that p entails q, then if p is knowable then q is
    knowable

    (+ some logical rules).

Bruno, what or who do you mean by "it" in statements 2) and 3). In
addition, what do you mean by "is knowable", "is true" and "entails"?
Are "is knowable", "is true" and "entails" absolute or do they have
meaning only with respect to a particular observer? Can these terms be
relative to an observer? If they can, how would you rephrase these
statements?

George




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Received on Thu Nov 22 2007 - 14:50:42 PST

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